an是公差为1 2的等差数列,其前100项和为145,则a2 a4 a6

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设数列an是公差不为0的等差数列,Sn为其前n项和,数列bn为等比数列,且

设{A(n)}的通项公式为:A(n)=2+d(n-1){B(n)}的通项公式为:B(n)=2×q^(n-1)则{A(n)}的前n项和为:S(n)=[A(1)+A(n)]n/2=[4+d(n-1)]n/

已知数列{an}是公差不为零的等差数列,其前n项和为Sn,且S5=30,又a1,a3,a9成等比数列.

(Ⅰ)设公差为d,由条件得5a1+5×42d=30(a1+2d)2=a1(a1+8d),得a1=d=2.∴an=2n,Sn=2n+n(n-1)×22=n2+n;(Ⅱ)∵1Sn+an+2=1n2+n+2

等差数列an的公差d

a1^2=a11^2,∴a1=-a11a1=-(a1+10d)2a1=-10da1=-5dan=a1+(n-1)d=-5d+(n-1)d=(n-6)d∵d0,a6=0,a7

已知{an}是公差不为零的等差数列,{bn}是各项都是正数的等比数列.

(1)根据题意,设公差为d则a3=a1+2d=2d+1a9=a1+8d=8d+1有(2d+1)^2=8d+1d=1故通项:an=n(2)根据题意,设公比为q则b2=qb3=q^2有q-0.5q^2=0

已知{an}为等差数列,其公差为-2,且a7是a3与a9的等比中项,则S10为(  )

由题意可得(a1−12)2=(a1−4)(a1−16),解得a1=20,故S10=10×20+10×92×(−2)=110,故选A.

数列an是公差d不等于0的等差数列,其前n项和为Sn,且

a9²=a15²a9²-a15²=0(a9-a15)(a9+a15)=0公差d不等于0所以a9+a15=0a1+8d+a1+14d=0a1+11d=0-----

等差数列啊!设{an}是公差不为0的等差数列,a1=2,且a1,a3,a6成等比数列,则其前n项和Sn=?

由题意可得:a3=2+2d,a6=2+5d由a1,a3,a6成等比数列所以(2+2d)^2=2(2+5d)又d不为0解得d=1/2由等差数列Sn=a1*n+n(n-1)d/2可得:Sn=2n+n(n-

等差数列{an}的公差d

a2+a4=2*a3=8a3=4,a4=3因此a1=6,d=-1通项为an=6-(n-1)=7-n

已知an是公差为d的等差数列,bn是公比为q的等比数列

6m+7=3k+16(m+1)=3kk=2m+2q=bn/bn-1=an+1/an-1an+1-(an-1)=2d两个联立an-1=1+2d/q是常数所以an是常数列bn也是常数列,且bn=1

数列an是首项为2,公差为1的等差数列,

1.an=a1+(n-1)d=2+n-1=n+1Sn=(a1+an)*n/2=n(n+3)/22.bn=2^(n+1)bn是以b1=4为首项,2为公比的等比数列,Tn=b1(1-q^n)/(1-q)=

已知{an}是公差为d的等差数列,{bn}是公比为q的等比数列

(1).由a(m)+a(m+1)=a(k)知道3m+3(m+1)+1=3k+1,整理后有k-2m=4/3,而m,k均是N+,则k-2m也是整数,故而不存在m,k∈N+,使a(m)+a(m+1)=a(k

设an是公差不为零的等差数列,Sn为其前n项和,满足a22+a32=a42+a52,S7=7

(1)由题意可得(a1+d)2+(a1+2d) 2=(a1+3d)2+(a1+4d)27a1+21d=7联立可得a1=-5,d=2∴an=-5+(n-1)×2=2n-7,sn=−5n+n(n

已知数列{an}的奇数项是公差为d1的等差数列,偶数项是公差为d2的等差数列

先做个mark,回头再做给你看.----------------------------------------将{an}分拆成{bt}、{ct}数列排列如下:{bt}:a1,a3,a5,a7,a9,

设数列{an}是公差不为零的等差数列

设该等差数列是首项为a1,公差为dS3=3a1+3(3-1)*d/2=3a1+3dS2=2a1+2(2-1)*d/2=2a1+dS4=4a1+4(4-1)*d/2=4a1+6d又:S3²=9

已知公差不为零的等差数列{an}中,sn是其前n项,且s1,s2,s4成等比数列

s1=a1s2=2a1+ds4=4a1+6d因为s1,s2,s4成等比数列所以(s2)²=s1×s4(2a1+d)²=a1(4a1+6d)4a1²+4a1d+d²

已知数列{an}的各项均为正数,其前n项和为Sn,若{log2an}是公差为-1的等差数列,且S6=38

∵{log2an}是公差为-1的等差数列∴log2an=log2a1-n+1∴an=2log2a1−n+1=a1•2−n+1∴S6=a1(1+12+…+132)=a1•1−1261−12=38,∴a1

已知{an}是公差为d的等差数列,若3a6=a3+a4+a5+12,则d=?

a3+a5=2a4所以,原式化为:3a6=3a4+12即:a6-a4=4即:2d=4得:d=2

已知数列{lgan}是首项为3,公差为2的等差数列,求证:{an}是等比数列.

{lgan}是首项为3公差为2lgan=3+2(n-1)=2n+1an=10^(2n+1)a1=10^3=1000q=10所以an为首项为1000公比为10的等比数列

在数列{an}和{bn}是两个无穷等差数列,公差分别为d1和d2,求证:数列{an+bn}是等差数列,并求它的公差.

an+bn-(an-1+bn-1)=(an-an-1)+(bn-bn-1)=d1+d2,所以{an+bn}是等差数列,公差是d1+d2